As far as modes of transport are concerned, civil aviation has been the fastest growing and the most technically innovative
of any.
From the first attempts at powered manned flight to regular space flight, we have only just exceeded 100 years of
aviation.
What is incredible is that the first scheduled international air service started in 1919.
It is probably no coincidence that the first international conference on civil aviation also took place in 1919 in Paris.
Since then, the field of air travel has been subjected to far more international legislation and agreements than any other.
The overriding need, which is recognized by all regardless of political inclination, is for higher and higher safety standards.
The degree of international cooperation in this respect is outstanding and shows that where there is a genuine desire to
achieve international agreement, it is forthcoming.
The Second World War had a major effect upon technical development of the aircraft, telescoping a quarter of a century
of normal peacetime development into six years.
A vast network of passenger and freight carriage was set up, but there were many problems to which solutions had
to be found to benefit and support a world at peace.
There was the question of commercial rights. What arrangements would be made for the airlines of one country to fly
into and through the territories of another?
There were other concerns with regard to the legal and economic conflicts that might come with peacetime flying across national
borders such as how to maintain existing air navigation facilities, many of which were located in sparsely populated areas.
For these reasons, the government of the United States conducted exploratory discussions with other allied nations during the early months
of 1944.
Subsequently, invitations were sent to fifty-five allied and neutral states to meet in Chicago in November 1944.
For five weeks the delegates of the fifty-two nations who attended considered the problems of international civil aviation.
The outcome was the Convention on International Civil Aviation, the purpose of which was to foster the future development of
international civil aviation, to help to create and preserve friendship and understanding among peoples of the world, so as to
prevent its abuse becoming a threat to the general security, thus promoting cooperation between peoples.
A permanent body was subsequently charged with the administration of the principles, the International Civil Aviation Organization, known throughout the
world by the acronym IKO.
The definitions which follow have to be understood by the student if a full grasp of this subject is to
be gained.
Sovereignty implies the right of a country, or contracting IKO state, to impose its national law on users of the
state's territorial airspace.
Territory, as defined in international legislation, in aviation terms, applies to the airspace existing over the defined limits of a
country's territory at ground level, and territorial waters.
A matter to which the Chicago Conference attached great importance was the question of exchange of commercial rights in international
civil aviation.
The states addressed the subject, resulting in contracting states agreeing, bilaterally, to grant each other certain rights regarding the commercial
exploitation of civil aviation.
These rights are now known as the freedoms of the air. However, it's important to remember that the freedoms gave
rights to transit the airspace of contracting states to both scheduled and non-scheduled flights.
Under international law, the imposition of customs tariffs and the prohibition of the importation of prescribed items is allowed.
In order to allow contracting states to maintain national customs and excise regulations, international flights are required to make the
first point of landing in a contracting state at a recognised international airport which provides customs, health and immigration facilities.
In the United Kingdom, these are known as customs airports.
Within the European Union, the removal of restrictions to free trade now allows flights from one European Union state to
another to make the first point of landing at a non-customs aerodrome, providing certain rules are observed.
As has just been stated, flights into the United Kingdom from another European Union state meet few formalities and are
not required to land at a designated customs airport.
For flights arriving in the United Kingdom at a non-customs airport, details of the flight plan and a list
of passengers and their nationalities should be advised in advance to the local customs contact point.
Any birds or animals on board and any prohibited or restricted goods must be declared to customs.
In addition, if it is intended to carry any non-European Union nationals into the United Kingdom, the Immigration Service
must be notified in advance.
It should also be noted that a PPL is not acceptable as proof of identity. Passports and visas, where required,
must also be carried.
The aircraft, its fuel, oil, etc., is not liable for excise duty, but other goods may be.
It should be borne in mind that, under Article XVI of the Chicago Convention, the authorities of each state shall
have the right to search the aircraft of other states on landing or departure, without unreasonable delay, and to inspect
certificates and other documents prescribed by the Convention.
The IKO has addressed taxation in the field of international aviation, and member states are required to follow the resolutions
and recommendation of the Council in this respect.
States are asked to exempt from duty any fuel, lubricants and other technical consumables taken on board an aircraft in
a state other than the state of registry, providing such supplies are for consumption in flight.
Each state undertakes to adopt measures to ensure that every aircraft flying over or manoeuvring within its territory, and that
every aircraft carrying its nationality mark, wherever that aircraft is, will comply with the rules and regulations relating to the
flight and manoeuvre of aircraft that are in force.
Each state also undertakes to keep its own regulations in these respects uniform, to the greatest possible extent, with those
established from time to time under the Convention.
Over the high seas, the rules in force will be those which were established under the Chicago Convention.
Furthermore, each state undertakes to ensure the prosecution of all persons violating the applicable regulations.
Other duties of member states include the specification of what documentation is required to be carried in an aircraft.
Documentation includes Certificate of Airworthiness, Flight Crew Licences, Load Sheets, Certificate of Registration.
A private pilot flying an aircraft registered in the United Kingdom must consult Article 76 and Schedule 11 of the
Air Navigation Order to check what documents need to be carried on board the aircraft.
For example, a private pilot of a UK registered aircraft which enters the sovereign airspace of another state shall carry
on board his aircraft, the Certificate of Airworthiness, the Certificate of Registration, radio documentation and licences, his pilot's licence, and
a copy of the current interception procedures.
Registered aircraft flying over the territory of another state must only carry radios which are licensed and used in accordance
with the regulations of the State of Registry.
The radios may only be used by members of the flight crew who are issued with a licence to use
those radios by the State of Registry.
A PPL is a licence issued by the state authority, the Civil Aviation Authority for the United Kingdom, which will
allow the holder to fly as pilot-in-command or co-pilot in any of the types or classes specified
in the licence, provided the holder's logbook contains a valid type or class rating for that aircraft.
In addition, the holder must be 17 years of age and hold a valid medical certificate, Class 1 or 2,
issued by an authorised medical examiner.
A PPL holder may not fly for the purposes of public transport or aerial work except as follows.
Instruction in flying, conducting flying tests for the purposes of the order, the towing of a glider, dropping parachutists,
In each case, the aircraft must be owned or operated under arrangements entered into, by a club of which both
the holder and the person or persons being instructed, tested, towed or dropped are members.
IKO standards and recommended practices, SARPs, require each state to apply standardisation in the licensing of personnel involved in international
aviation.
The overriding purpose of standardisation is to ensure that all involved in air transport operations are licensed to common standards
and able to operate throughout the world, thus generating greater trust in aviation on the part of the traveller.
Each state undertakes to collaborate in securing the highest practicable degree of uniformity in regulations, standards, procedures and in organisation
in relation to airspace, aircraft, personnel and auxiliary services, in which uniformity will facilitate and improve air navigation.
A journey logbook shall be maintained for every aircraft engaged in international navigation. Particulars of the aircraft, its crew and
of each journey must be entered in the journey logbook, including occurrences that require recording.
No munitions or implements of war may be carried in or above the territory of a state in aircraft engaged
in international navigation, unless that state has given its permission.
Each state may prohibit or regulate the use of photographic apparatus in aircraft over its territory.
No aircraft or personnel who have endorsed certificates or licences may participate in international navigation, except with the permission of
the state or states whose territory is entered.
The registration or use of any such aircraft or aircraft part in any state, other than that in which it
was originally certificated, shall be at the discretion of the state into which the aircraft or part is imported.
The rules of the air are laid down by the authority to facilitate the safe and expeditious conduct of flights
under its jurisdiction.
The rules of the air of the United Kingdom apply to all aircraft within the United Kingdom, including the neighbourhood
of offshore installations where the Low Flying Rule, Rule 5, is concerned, and all United Kingdom registered aircraft wherever they
may be, providing the United Kingdom rules do not conflict with the rules of the state being overflown.
Except for the purpose of taking off and landing at an aerodrome anywhere, an aircraft other than a helicopter must
not fly over a congested area below a height that would allow it to land clear of the area and
without danger to people or property if an engine fails, or less than 1,500 feet above the highest object
within 600 metres, whichever is the higher.
A congested area in relation to a city, town or settlement means any area which is substantially used for residential,
industrial, commercial or recreational purposes.
No aircraft may fly within 1,000 metres of an open air gathering of more than 1,000 people, except
with the permission of the authority and in accordance with any conditions specified and with the written consent of the
organisers.
Neither may the aircraft fly below a height that would enable it to land clear of the assembly if an
engine failed.
An aircraft must not fly closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.
When simulated instrument flying is taking place, that is a pilot is flying the aircraft with his external field of
view artificially restricted, the aircraft must have dual controls and a safety pilot must be present in a control seat.
A student pilot does not qualify for this assistant role. A safety pilot need not hold the applicable type or
class rating. If necessary, a third person is to be carried as a competent observer to ensure an adequate lookout.
A pilot practising instrument approaches in visual meteorological conditions, VMC, must tell the air traffic control unit and carry a
competent observer.
If simulated instrument flying is taking place at the same time, then the aircraft must have dual controls and a
safety pilot must be present in a control seat.
A student pilot does not qualify for this assistant role. If necessary, a third person is to be carried as
a competent observer to ensure an adequate lookout.
It is accepted practice to illuminate the aircraft landing lights during instrument approaches to warn other aircraft flying in VMC.
Aircraft must display such lights as are specified for their particular category.
These lighting requirements generally apply also when the aircraft is moving on the ground and when it is stationary on
the ground in a specified area.
No other lights may be displayed that might impair the effectiveness of the required lights.
An aircraft must not depart unless all of the lights required to be displayed are serviceable.
On flying machines and airships, the green and red light show through 110 degrees from dead ahead, green on the
starboard side and red on the port side.
The white tail light shows through 70 degrees either side of dead astern.
In addition, an airship has a white light that shows through 110 degrees of dead ahead, an arc of 220
degrees.
An anti-collision light, where carried on an aircraft, is a flashing light showing in all directions, red in the
case of a rotorcraft and red or white in relation to any other aircraft.
Navigation lights should not be visible as far as is practical outside the prescribed arcs.
The following lights, required to be shown by an aircraft, are to be illuminated from sunset to sunrise, or during
any other period specified by the authority.
Anti-collision lights intended to attract attention to the aircraft.
Navigation lights intended to indicate the relative path of the aircraft to an observer.
No other light shall be displayed if they are likely to be mistaken for these lights.
All aircraft on the movement area of an aerodrome are to display lights that indicate the extremities of their structure,
unless stationary and otherwise illuminated.
Aircraft with engines running are to display lights to indicate that fact. The red anti-collision light is considered adequate
for this purpose.
A pilot is permitted to switch off or reduce the intensity of any flashing lights if they are likely to
adversely affect the satisfactory performance of duties or subject an outside observer to harmful dazzle.
Before flight, an aircraft commander must study the appropriate reports and forecasts for the route, and determine whether instrument meteorological
conditions, IMC, are likely to prevail at any point.
An aircraft which is unable to communicate by radio with an air traffic control unit at the aerodrome of destination
shall not begin a flight to an aerodrome within a control zone if the information, which is reasonably practical for
the pilot to obtain, indicates that it will arrive at that aerodrome when the ground visibility is less than 10
kilometres, or the cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet.
Ground visibility is the horizontal visibility at ground level. Cloud ceiling is the height above aerodrome level of the base
of the lowest cloud layer obscuring more than half the sky.
For the purposes of this rule, a glider and a flying machine towing it are considered to be a single
flying machine under the command of the commander of the towing machine.
An aircraft must not fly in proximity to other aircraft so as to create a danger of collision.
Aircraft must not fly in formation unless the commanders have agreed to do so.
An aircraft with right-of-way shall maintain its course and speed.
An aircraft which is obliged to give way to another aircraft must avoid passing over, under or crossing ahead unless
well clear of it.
Regardless of any air traffic control unit clearance, it is the duty of the commander of an aircraft to take
all possible measures to ensure that he does not collide with any other aircraft.
Power-driven flying machines must give way to airships, gliders and balloons.
Airships must give way to gliders and balloons.
Gliders must give way to balloons.
Subject to them being in the same class, that is either two powered aircraft or two airships or two gliders,
when two aircraft are converging at about the same altitude, the aircraft which has the other on its right must
give way.
Powered aircraft must give way to aircraft which are towing.
When two aircraft are approaching head-on, or nearly so, and there is a danger of collision, each must turn
to its right.
Unless otherwise instructed by air traffic control, aircraft must conform to the traffic pattern formed by other aircraft intending to
land at that aerodrome, or keep clear of the traffic pattern.
All turns should be made to the left, unless ground signals indicate otherwise.
Aircraft landing, or on final approach, have right-of-way over others in flight or on the surface.
When two or more aircraft are approaching any place for landing, the lower aircraft has the right-of-way, unless
air traffic control has already specified a landing order, or the other, or one of the other aircraft, is making
an emergency landing.
Aerobatics are not allowed over a congested area. Remember, a congested area in relation to a city, town or settlement
means any area which is substantially used for residential, industrial, commercial or recreational purposes.
An aircraft flying in sight of the ground and following a road, railway, canal, coast or other line feature must
keep that feature on its left, unless instructed to do otherwise by air traffic control.
If an aircraft is expected at an aerodrome, the commander must inform the authorities at the aerodrome as soon as
possible if the destination is changed or arrival will be delayed by 45 minutes or more. This is to avoid
any unnecessary overdue action being carried out.
Whenever possible, an aircraft commander must report upon arrival and prior to departure to the appropriate authority at an aerodrome.
Flight in Class A airspace must be conducted under Instrument Flight Rules, IFR, and the pilot in command must hold
an instrument rating.
Special Visual Flight Rules, SVFR, may be available at any time in a control zone that is Class A airspace.
Flights may be conducted under VFR or IFR, subject to Rule 21, and as conditions allow.
In controlled airspace in IMC and at night, all flights must be made under IFR, except in a control zone
when SVFR may be available. A pilot may elect to fly IFR, even though the weather is VMC.
Except in Classes A and B airspace, and Class C under IFR, an aircraft shall not fly below 10,000
feet at a speed greater than 250 knots, unless cleared.
When in Class G airspace, known as the Open FIR, during daylight pilots may fly VFR provided they meet the
greater of the Class G minima or their PPL privileges.
The minima are when above 3,000 feet, 5 kilometres visibility and clear of cloud by 1,500 metres horizontally
and 1,000 feet vertically and
when below 3,000 feet, clear of cloud and in sight of the surface with an in-flight visibility of
5 kilometres or 3 kilometres if the indicated airspeed is less than 140 knots.
The minima for Class F airspace are the same as for Class G, but pilots are advised to avoid advisory
routes or areas unless participating in the advisory service.
VFR flight is not permitted in Class A airspace, although gliders may cross certain airways by day, providing they have
8 kilometres visibility and are clear of cloud by 1,500 metres horizontally and 1,000 feet vertically.
VFR flight is permitted in daylight in airspace other than Class A airspace, provided that the pilot can maintain the
VMC minima. Above 10,000 feet, the minimum visibility is increased to 8 kilometres.
Before flying in Class B, C or D airspace, a VFR flight plan is required by air traffic control, which
may be filed airborne over the aircraft radio, and an air traffic control clearance must be received.
Two-way radio telephony contact with air traffic control must be maintained and air traffic control instructions must be obeyed.
If, during the day, the visibility is below 3 kilometres or the holder of a PPL is flying out of
sight of the ground, then IFR is mandatory and the licence must include either an instrument rating or IMC rating.
In the United Kingdom, if acting as pilot-in-command of a light aircraft at night, the holder of a
private pilot's licence without an instrument rating must possess a night rating. Even if the PPL holder possesses a United
Kingdom IMC rating, he must in addition have a night rating.
Subject to the requirements of Rule 5, the Low Flying Rule, the aircraft must not fly at less than 1
,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 nautical miles, with three exceptions.
Firstly, on a route notified for the purposes of this rule or otherwise by the competent authority.
Next, as necessary for take-off or landing.
And finally, when flying at or below 3,000 feet above mean sea level and when clear of cloud and
in sight of the surface.
Outside controlled airspace above 3,000 feet, or transition altitude, whichever is higher, up to flight level 2-4-5,
pilots must, in the United Kingdom, select cruising levels based on the quadrantal system using the standard altimeter setting of
1013 millibars.
In IMC or under IFR, unless otherwise instructed by air traffic control, the quadrantal system requires an aircraft to be
flown at a level appropriate to its magnetic track. The semi-circular rule is applicable above FL 2-4-5.
If the aircraft is flying on a magnetic track of between 0 and 89 degrees, then its cruising flight level
must be at odd thousands of feet.
If the aircraft is flying on a magnetic track of between 90 and 179 degrees, then its cruising flight level
must be at odd thousands plus 500 feet.
If the aircraft is flying on a magnetic track of between 180 and 269 degrees, then its cruising flight level
must be at even thousands of feet.
If the aircraft is flying on a magnetic track of between 270 and 359 degrees, then its cruising flight level
must be at even thousands plus 500 feet.
Flight levels are expressed by omitting the last two zeros from a particular cruising level. For example, a cruising level
of 4,000 feet on the standard altimeter setting would be expressed as FL 4-0 or 5,500 feet
as FL 5-5.
The function of the Aeronautical Information Service is to collect, collate, edit and disseminate to interested parties, including air traffic
control services, flight crew and other aviation organisations, the information necessary for safe and efficient air navigation.
The United Kingdom Aeronautical Information Service conforms to IKO Annex 15 requirements to publish aeronautical information in an integrated package.
This is achieved by publishing the Aeronautical Information Publication, NOTAMs and Aeronautical Information Circulars.
Otherwise known as the Air Pilot, the Aeronautical Information Publication includes relevant IKO procedures and details any United Kingdom differences
from IKO standards. The AIP is broken down into
GEN, standing for General, ENR, standing for Enroute, and AD, which stands for Aerodrome Directory.
Permanent changes to the Aeronautical Information Publication are published by reprint pages, which are issued as ARAQ amendments in accordance
with the ARAQ calendar, every 28 days.
NOTAMs are distributed by post, where 7 days notice is available, otherwise by the Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunications Network, AFTN or
Telex.
Aeronautical Information Circulars, AICs, are published monthly by the Aeronautical Information Service to draw attention to changes to administrative or
operational matters.
Unless they are replaced or revoked, they will normally last for 5 years, when they may be updated or reissued.
They are printed on different coloured paper, according to their subject matter. In the United Kingdom, these are
White. Administrative matters, for example, examination dates, new publications, course charges, etc.
Yellow. Operational matters.
Pink. Matters of special importance to air safety.
Purple. Amendments to United Kingdom airspace restriction charts.
Green. Availability of Civil Aviation Authority maps and charts.
The basic division of airspace is a Flight Information Region or FIR. In the United Kingdom, two FIRs exist, the
London and Scottish FIRs.
In the United Kingdom, FIRs exist up to FL245, above which Upper Flight Information Regions, UIRs, exist up to FL660.
The classification of airspace within an FIR determines the flight rules permitted and the minimum services provided.
Controlled airspace is divided into five sub-divisions, which are A, B, C, D and E. Any flights in Class
A to D airspace and IFR flights in Class E airspace are subject to air traffic control clearance before entry.
Visual flight rules flights in Class E airspace do not require an entry clearance, but if they are in radio
telephony contact with the controlling authority, they will be given traffic information.
Controlled airspace can be further divided into Control Zones or CTRs and Control Areas, CTAs.
A Control Zone extends from ground level to a specified altitude or flight level. This diagram shows an example of
an imaginary Control Zone.
A Control Area extends from a specified altitude or flight level upwards to another specified altitude or flight level.
A Control Area established at the confluence of air traffic service routes in the vicinity of one or more major
aerodromes is known as a Terminal Control Area, TMA.
A Control Area in the form of a corridor, 10 miles wide, joining two points in a straight line, is
known as an airway and is identified by a letter and a number.
In the United Kingdom it's normal for airways to be Class A airspace, but where an airway passes through a
CTR or a CTA, the airway adopts the class of that airspace.
Outside controlled airspace routes are established, similar to airways, in which air traffic control will provide advisory services to participating
IFR flights. These are known as Class F airspace.
The Open FIR is the remainder of the FIR, outside controlled airspace, and is Class G.
Flights within Class G airspace can request a flight information service and an alerting service if a flight plan has
been filed or if the flight is otherwise known to air traffic control.
Although airways are shown crossing the chart section illustrated here, it must be remembered that the airspace below the airways
is still Class G airspace unless otherwise indicated.
The Aerodrome Traffic Zone is the airspace around an aerodrome which has an air traffic control or Aerodrome Flight Information
Service, AFIS unit, or is a licensed aerodrome which has an air-to-ground radio station during the hours of
watch.
An Aerodrome Traffic Zone extends from the surface to a height of 2,000 feet above the aerodrome. In the
United Kingdom, if the main runway is less than 1,850 metres, the Aerodrome Traffic Zone encompasses an area centred
on the midpoint of the runway whose radius is 2 nautical miles, provided that the zone extends beyond 1.5
nautical miles from the end of any runway.
If it does not, or the longest runway is more than 1,850 metres in length, the radius is 2
.5 nautical miles.
An aircraft must have the permission of air traffic control to fly within the Aerodrome Traffic Zone, or, if there
is no aerodrome traffic control, it must have the appropriate information from either the Aerodrome Flight Information Service or the
air-to-ground radio.
In addition, the flight must maintain a continuous listening watch on the appropriate radio frequency, or lookout for visual instructions,
and give a report of its position and height on entering and leaving the zone.
In the United Kingdom certain military airfields have a military air traffic zone established around them in addition to the
normal air traffic zone. The military air traffic zone is a larger area that extends from the surface to a
height of 3,000 feet above the aerodrome level, and covers a circular area with a radius of 5 nautical
miles centred on the midpoint of the longest runway.
It also has a stub, or stubs, aligned along the centreline of the main instrument runway, 4 nautical miles wide,
extending out to 10 nautical miles from the runway midpoint, and from a height of 1,000 feet to a
height of 3,000 feet above the surface of the airfield.
Where two or more military air traffic zones overlap, one of the airfields will be designated as the controlling one.
This is known as a combined zone, a CMATS.
Civil pilots wishing to penetrate a military air traffic zone are strongly advised to do so under the control of
the military air traffic zone air traffic control. In any case the normal rules must be observed if penetrating the
associated air traffic zone.
A flight information service, FIS, is provided to all aircraft in flight information regions, or upper information regions, which are
in contact with an air traffic service unit.
The air traffic service unit will provide information and warnings on meteorological conditions, changes of serviceability in navigational and approach
aids, conditions of aerodrome facilities, and other safety information.
When requested or required, an air traffic control service will be provided to aircraft in radio contact with an air
traffic control unit, and it will be assumed that pilots are complying with any instructions unless they state otherwise.
The extent of the service can vary from aerodrome control service only, using the call sign TOWER, to a full
service providing aerodrome control, approach control, and approach radar control, using, for example, the call signs SILLIES TOWER, OXFORD APPROACH,
or LUTEN RADAR, respectively.
When departing an airfield, the first call would normally be to TOWER, with any subsequent changes as directed. On arrival,
the first call would normally be made to APPROACH.
An air traffic control unit is confined to units manned by licensed air traffic controllers, who are closely regulated by
the Civil Aviation Authority.
An air traffic control unit will also provide flight information service and alerting services. Outside controlled airspace, in the provision
of a flight information service, radar may also be used to enhance the service provided.
The Aerodrome Flight Information Service is a service provided in the vicinity of an aerodrome when a Flight Information Service
Officer, or FISO, will pass information to assist in the safe and efficient conduct of flights.
It will include traffic information, but the onus remains on the pilot to decide on the appropriate course of action.
A Flight Information Service Officer is not permitted to give instructions, clearances, or advice, or to in any way imply
that he is providing an air traffic control service. An example of the call sign used would be ABAPORTH INFORMATION.
Flight Information Service Officers are licensed by the Civil Aviation Authority, but are self-regulating.
Some aerodromes which have been allocated a radio frequency in the VHF band, but don't provide air traffic control or
Aerodrome Flight Information Service, may provide a radio link between the Aerodrome Authority and the aircraft.
This service is manned by radio operators who are certificated as competent by the Civil Aviation Authority. They come under
the jurisdiction of the holder of the aerodrome radio license, but are not regulated in any other way. An example
of just such a call sign would be HENLO RADIO.
It's a requirement for all contracting states of IKO to provide search and rescue facilities for all aircraft flying in
the airspace of that state.
In order to alert the search and rescue and other services, fire, ambulance, police, mountain rescue, civil defense, states are
required to have a formal system by which the controlling agencies, the Rescue Coordination Centers, RCCs, are notified that an
aircraft is in an emergency situation.
This system is known as the alerting service, and it's part of air traffic services. Flight Information Centers or Area
Control Centers are required to provide the alerting service.
The service ensures that aircraft in any emergency situation are given the assistance they need. This may range from information
concerning the nearest aerodrome, to ensuring that a Rescue Coordination Center has all the information needed to mount a full
-scale rescue operation.
Visual meteorological conditions or VMC are weather conditions in which visual flight rules apply, expressed in terms of visibility, ceiling
height, and aircraft clearance from clouds along the path of flight equal to or better than specified minima.
When these criteria do not exist, instrument meteorological conditions prevail and instrument flight rules must be complied with, unless special
visual flight rules is available in a control zone.
Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud and ceiling, less than minimum specified for visual meteorological conditions,
are reported as IMC.
An aircraft known or believed to be in a state of emergency, including being subjected to unlawful interference, will be
given maximum consideration, assistance, and priority over other aircraft as the circumstances require.
To indicate that it is in a state of emergency, an aircraft equipped with an SSR transponder might operate the
equipment as follows.
Mode alpha, code 7700 or
Mode alpha, code 7600 to indicate radio failure or
Mode alpha, code 7500 to indicate specifically that it is being subjected to unlawful interference.
When an occurrence of unlawful interference with an aircraft takes place or is suspected, air traffic service units will attend
promptly to requests by the aircraft.
Information pertinent to the safe conduct of the flight will continue to be transmitted and necessary action will be taken
to expedite the conduct of all phases of the flight, especially safe landing of the aircraft.
In dealing with instances of unlawful interference, air traffic control will observe strict confidentiality in communications and minimise any reference
to the event.
A strayed aircraft is one which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is lost.
An unidentified aircraft is an aircraft that has been observed or reported operating in a given area but whose identity
has not been established.
As soon as air traffic control becomes aware of a strayed aircraft, it is to take all necessary steps to
assist the aircraft and safeguard its flight.
Navigational assistance by an air traffic control unit is particularly important if the unit becomes aware of an aircraft straying
or about to stray into an area where there is a risk of interception or other hazard to its safety.
As soon as an air traffic control unit becomes aware of an unidentified aircraft in its area, it will attempt
to establish the identity of the aircraft for air traffic purposes or as required by the military.
If successful, the military is to be informed if it's previously been notified about the unidentified aircraft.
Attempts should be made to establish two-way communications,
to establish if the aircraft is under the control of other air traffic control units in the flight information region,
to establish if the aircraft is under the control of air traffic control units in adjacent flight information regions,
to obtain information from other aircraft in the area.
As soon as an air traffic services unit learns that an aircraft is being intercepted in its area of responsibility,
it will take such of the following steps as are appropriate in the circumstances.
It will attempt to establish two-way communication with the intercepted aircraft on any available frequency, including the emergency frequency
of 121.5 MHz, unless such communication already exists.
It will inform the pilot of the intercepted aircraft of the interception.
It will establish contact with the intercept control unit, maintaining two-way communications with the intercepting aircraft, and provide it
with available information concerning the aircraft.
It will relay messages between the intercepting aircraft or the intercept control unit and the intercepted aircraft as necessary.
It will take all necessary steps, in close coordination with the intercept control unit, to ensure the safety of the
intercepted aircraft.
It will inform air traffic services units serving adjacent flight information regions if it appears that the aircraft has strayed
from such adjacent flight information regions.
The apron is the area provided for parking, loading and unloading.
The manoeuvring area is provided for aircraft movement, including taking off and landing, but does not include the apron and
maintenance areas.
Aircraft must not taxi on the manoeuvring area without permission of air traffic control or the aerodrome authority.
No person or vehicle can go onto any part of an aerodrome without permission of the person in charge of
the aerodrome.
Regardless of any air traffic control clearance, it's the duty of the aircraft commander to do everything possible to avoid
collision with other aircraft or vehicles.
When two aircraft are converging, the one which has the other on its right must give way, avoiding crossing ahead
of the other unless passing well clear.
When two aircraft are approaching head on, or nearly so, each must turn to the right.
In the United Kingdom, aircraft which are not taking off or landing and vehicles must give way to any vehicle
towing an aircraft.
Elsewhere in the world, taxiing aircraft have priority over all other traffic, except emergency vehicles.
Vehicles which are not towing must give way to aircraft.
Taxying aircraft and vehicles must give way to aircraft taking off or landing.
Vehicles obey normal rules of the road when overtaking or approaching another vehicle head on.
Aircraft taxiing on an aerodrome and all vehicular traffic must give way to emergency vehicles responding to an incident.
An aircraft which is being overtaken by another has right of way and the overtaking aircraft must keep out of
the way by turning to the left until well clear.
Every licensed aerodrome has a system of markings and lights conforming to an IKO standard, to give information to a
pilot about the part of the aerodrome he is using or is about to use.
There is also a standardised system of light signals that enable basic communication to be established between a pilot and
air traffic control, or vice versa if RTF is not available.
Markings on an aerodrome are provided to enable a pilot to identify certain locations on the aerodrome and to provide
guidance by day for aircraft movements.
For convenience, these markings may be divided into two basic types, those unpaved or unpaved surface.
Paved surface markings may be further divided into three subsections, paved runway, paved taxiway and paved apron.
Paved runway markings are white. All runways in regular use are identified by a runway designation marking. This consists of
a two digit number indicating the magnetic heading of the runway to the nearest 5 degrees.
If there is more than one runway running parallel, then the marking will include L if it's on the left,
R if it's on the right and C if it's between the two other runways.
All runways in regular use have threshold and centreline markings. These are arranged so as not to obscure the runway
designator.
Runway edge marking is always provided for runways that are equipped with instrument landing system, and for runways where there
is insufficient contrast between the runway and its shoulders, or where the declared runway width is less than the apparent
width.
Threshold markings are normally located at the beginning of the paved surface, but there may be circumstances due to obstructions,
or the non-load bearing nature of the surface, when the runway threshold can be displaced along the runway.
If the displacement is temporary, then the original markings will be obscured and the new threshold marked as normal.
When a threshold is displaced, the area between the start of the paved area and the threshold will be marked
to show the load bearing quality of the paved surface.
All instrument landing system equipped runways and those where the touchdown zone is insufficiently clear will be given touchdown and
aiming point markings.
This is intended to make the optimum touchdown point easier to see in poor visibility, and assist the pilot to
estimate his angle of approach.
Paved taxiway markings are yellow in colour, and consist of centreline, runway taxi holding position, edge, and information markings.
Taxiway centreline marking consists of a continuous yellow line marking the declared centre of the taxiway.
If it crosses a runway, it continues to indicate the direction to be followed, but will be interrupted to accommodate
the runway markings.
Provided that the pilot keeps the cockpit over the centreline, the wingtips of the largest aircraft that the taxiway is
designed for should be clear of any obstacles.
It is however still the pilot's responsibility to avoid a collision with any obstacle or person.
To protect aircraft on take-off and landing, runway taxi holding position markings are established on each taxiway leading to
a runway.
Neither vehicles nor aircraft should cross a runway taxi holding position marking without permission from air traffic control.
It will also keep vehicles and aircraft outside any instrument landing system sensitive areas.
There are two styles of runway taxi holding position marking, pattern A and pattern B.
Pattern A consists of four yellow lines laid across the whole width of the taxiway at right angles to the
centreline.
The two lines nearest to the runway are broken, the other two are solid.
The last runway taxi holding position marking before the runway is always pattern A.
Pattern B consists of two solid yellow lines laid across the whole width of the taxiway at right angles to
the centreline joined by cross lines similar to a ladder.
If there is more than one runway taxi holding position marking on a taxiway, they will be in the style
of pattern B, with the exception of the final one before the runway.
Where there is a complex taxiway pattern or multiple intersecting taxiways, intermediate taxi holding position markings may be established in
order to protect a priority taxi route.
An intermediate taxi holding position marking is marked by a single unbroken line across the full width of the taxiway
at right angles to the centreline.
These markings are positioned to provide clearance for aircraft passing in front of the holding aircraft.
Information marking in the form of surface painted directions may be used where the use of a marker board might
cause an obstruction.
Apron markings, intended for the guidance of pilots, are painted in yellow, and it's assumed that when using them the
pilot will endeavour to keep the aircraft nosewheel on the marked centreline, in order to maintain obstacle clearances.
Markings intended for service vehicle drivers may be in other colours.
At some small airfields, where parking space may be at a premium, yellow spots or circles may be painted on
the apron to indicate individual parking places.
Parking on these markings does not guarantee clearance from obstacles or adjacent aircraft.
Normally unpaved surface markings are confined to unpaved runways and consist of unpaved runway edge, centreline, threshold and end markings.
The edges of an unpaved runway are delineated by markers placed at regular intervals along the declared edges of the
runway.
Where provided, centreline marking is usually made by white marks inset flush with the surface at regular intervals along the
runway.
The threshold and end of an unpaved runway is marked by markers, similar to those used to mark the edges,
placed either side of the threshold and the end at 90 degrees to the edge markers to form an L
shape.
These markers and the edge markers are white normally, but may be another colour if it's necessary to create contrast
with the background.
The signs on an aerodrome, when used in conjunction with aerodrome charts, are intended to simplify surface movement guidance and
control procedures, particularly in conditions of poor visibility.
They are divided into two categories, mandatory signs and information signs.
Mandatory signs are white characters on a red background.
Mandatory signs consist of runway taxi holding position marking signs, intermediate taxi holding position marking signs and no entry signs.
Runway taxi holding position markings are located alongside the appropriate surface markings on both sides of the taxiway to assist
in identifying the holding point.
Intermediate taxi holding position marking signs are located alongside the appropriate surface markings on both sides of the taxiway to
assist in identifying the holding point.
Pilots must not cross a holding point without air traffic control clearance.
At aerodromes without air traffic control, the sign need only be on one side of the taxiway and it indicates
where pilots and drivers must stop to give way to traffic using the runway.
No entry signs are located on either side of the entrance to any areas which are withdrawn from use, or
are one way, and show the direction from which entry is prohibited.
Information signs are only used where there is an operational need, and should be used in conjunction with the aerodrome
chart. They are divided into three types, location, destination and direction signs.
Location signs are used to identify taxiways and, where necessary, runways. Taxiways are designated by a single letter. O, I
or X are not used.
On a large aerodrome with many taxiways, a double letter may be used to identify a minor taxiway.
Runway location signs use the first two numbers of the runway's magnetic heading.
Location signs consist of yellow characters on a black background with a yellow border, except when they are combined with
a direction or destination sign.
Destination signs consist of a route or destination label accompanied by an arrow pointing in the correct direction, displayed in
black characters on a yellow background.
Direction signs are normally sighted on the left of a taxiway or runway before an intersection.
Obstacles to air navigation are divided into two categories, aerodrome obstacles and en route obstacles.
All objects within a 15km radius of an aerodrome that protrude through the obstacle identification surface may be considered to
be obstacles to aircraft, either in flight or manoeuvring on the ground, and are illuminated at night or in poor
visibility, and where the obstacle is insufficiently conspicuous by day, marked or lit.
If the obstacle to be marked has no dimension greater than 45m, it will be lit by a single steady
red light.
Any obstacle of greater size will have additional red lights to show its outline.
Surface obstructions, and unserviceable parts of the movement area, are marked by portable red lights.
Any mobile obstacles, such as vehicles and equipment, normally display a flashing yellow light, with the exception of emergency vehicles,
which display flashing blue lights when responding to an incident.
Where obstacles are insufficiently conspicuous by day, they are normally lit, and marked by either alternating bands, or by a
checkered pattern of red or orange and white.
Vehicles and mobile equipment are painted in a contrasting colour, or may be fitted with markers or flags.
Unserviceable parts of the movement area will be delineated either by marker boards painted in alternate bands of red or
orange and white, or by diagonally split orange and white flags.
In addition, such areas are wherever possible marked with white crosses.
Outside of a radius of 15km from the aerodrome, objects are not considered to be obstacles to aircraft unless they
exceed a height of 150m.
Occasionally, an object of lesser height may be considered to be an obstacle if it's on or close to a
regularly used helicopter route.
En route obstacles are lit by flashing red lights at night, and high intensity flashing white lights by day.
If the object is complex, it may have high intensity flashing white lights at night as well.
There are some areas where it's environmentally desirable not to use the high intensity flashing lights.
At those aerodromes where there is a significant number of general aviation movements, four basic types of signal are employed.
These are the signal square, surface signals, signal mast, and light signals.
Where provided, the signal square is 12m2 and bounded by a white border, and is in such a position that
it can be seen from all directions of approach.
The absence of a signal square indicates that non-radio traffic is not permitted.
The signals shown are as follows.
A white T signifies that aircraft are to take off or land in a direction parallel to the shaft of
the T, and towards the cross arm, unless otherwise instructed by air traffic control.
A white T with a white disc adjacent to the cross arm means that the take off and landing directions
do not necessarily coincide.
A red and yellow striped arrow along the hole of two adjacent sides of the signal area, and pointing in
a clockwise direction, signifies that a right hand circuit is in force.
A red panel with a yellow diagonal stripe signifies that the movement area is in a poor state, and pilots
should exercise care when landing.
A red panel with two yellow diagonal stripes in the form of a cross signifies that the aerodrome is unsafe
for the movement of aircraft, and landing is prohibited.
A white dumbbell indicates that movements of aircraft on the ground should be confined to paved, metalled or similar hard
surfaces.
A black stripe across each disc of the white dumbbell at right angles to its shaft indicates that aircraft taking
off or landing are using a runway, but movement on the ground is not confined to the hard surface.
A red letter L displayed on the dumbbell signifies that light aircraft are permitted to take off or land either
on a runway, or on the area designated by a large white L.
A double white cross shows that glider flying is in progress.
A white letter H indicates that helicopters shall take off and land within the area designated by a large white
H.
The following signals may be displayed on various surfaces on an aerodrome.
A large white H is displayed on an area reserved for the take off and landing of helicopters.
A double white cross indicates an area reserved for the take off and landing of gliders.
A black letter C on a yellow background on the control tower, administrative building or flight plan office shows the
reporting point for visiting pilots.
Orange and white stripe markers are used to delineate the boundaries of the airfield.
A panel of red and yellow squares on the control tower building indicates that aircraft may only taxi with air
traffic control instructions.
A large white L indicates an area, normally of grass, reserved for landing and taking off of light aircraft.
A yellow marker in the shape of a St George's cross marks an area reserved for the dropping of tow
ropes etc.
A white St Andrews cross means that part of the runway up to the next standard marking is unfit for
use.
A St Andrews cross painted yellow means that part of a taxiway up to the next standard mark is unfit
for use.
A yellow board with two figures in black on it mounted on the control tower indicates the runway in use
or the direction of take off and landing.
Orange and white markers or flags are used to delineate parts of the airfield that are unfit for use.
A black and white triangular box section marker placed on either side of the runway indicates a displaced threshold.
A wind sleeve or windsock, usually orange, is placed adjacent to the runway and should be visible from each threshold
and all approach directions.
It shows wind speed and direction.
A black ball suspended from the signal mast indicates that take off and landing directions may not be the same.
Two red balls, one above the other and suspended from the signal mast, show that glider flying is taking place.
A rectangular green flag on the mast indicates that right hand circuits are in force.
Light and or pyrotechnic signals are frequently used to pass information between air traffic control and an aircraft.
Three colours are normally used. They are red, green and white.
A steady red light or a red flare to an aircraft from air traffic control means do not land, continue
circling.
A red flare from an aircraft to air traffic control means immediate assistance required.
A steady red light to a vehicle from air traffic control means stop.
A flashing red light to an aircraft from air traffic control means do not land, airfield closed.
A flashing red light to a vehicle from air traffic control means move clear of landing area.
A flashing green light to an aircraft from air traffic control means return to aerodrome and await landing clearance.
A flashing green to a vehicle or aircraft on the ground from air traffic control means clear to move or
taxi on the manoeuvring area.
A steady green light from air traffic control to an aircraft on the ground means cleared to take off.
In the air, a steady green light from air traffic control means cleared to land.
A steady or flashing green light or a green flare from an aircraft to air traffic control means at night
may I land.
During daylight, a steady or a flashing green light or a green flare from an aircraft to air traffic control
means may I land in a direction different to that indicated.
A flashing white light to an aircraft from air traffic control means land here on receipt of steady green.
A flashing white light to an aircraft on the ground or to a vehicle means return to starting point on
the aerodrome.
A white flare from an aircraft to air traffic control or irregular switching of navigation lights means I am compelled
to land.
To assist with the manoeuvring of aircraft on the ground, a standard system of signals has been developed for use
between an aircraft marshaller and the pilot.
Right or left arm down and the other arm moved horizontally across the body to indicate the position of the
next marshaller.
Arms repeatedly moved upwards and backwards together beckoning onward.
Right arm down, left arm repeatedly moved upward and backward. The speed of movement indicates the rate of turn required.
Left arm down, right arm repeatedly moved upward and backward. The speed of movement indicates the rate of turn required.
Arms repeatedly crossed above the head. The speed of arm movement indicates the urgency of the stop.
A circular motion of the right hand at head level with the left hand pointing at the appropriate engine or
with the left hand held above the head and a number of fingers extended indicating the engine to be started,
day only.
Arms extended, the palms facing inwards then swung from the extended position inwards.
Arms down, the palms facing outwards then swung outwards.
Either arm and hand placed level with the chest, then moved laterally with the palm downwards. A throat cutting movement.
Arms placed with the palms towards the ground, then moved up and down several times.
Arms placed down with palms towards the ground, then either arm moved up and down several times. The engine on
the same side as the moving arm is the one to be slowed.
Arms placed above the head in a vertical position.
The right arm raised at the elbow with the palm facing forward.
Arm raised with fist clenched horizontally in front of the body, then fingers extended, day only.
Arm raised with fingers extended horizontally in front of body, then fist clenched, day only.
To assist with the manoeuvring of aircraft on the ground, a standard system of signals has been developed for use
between the pilot and the aircraft marshaller.
Raise the arm horizontally with the fingers extended in front of the face, then clenched the fist.
Raise the arm with the fist clenched horizontally in front of the face, then extend the fingers.
Arms extended with the palms facing outwards. Move the hands inwards to cross in front of the face.
Hands crossed in front of the face, palms facing outwards, then move the arms outwards.
Raise the number of fingers on one hand indicating the number of the engine to be started.
For this purpose engines shall be numbered sequentially from the port outer engine, which is number 1.
In order to provide the correct service, and to specify appropriate rules, airspace is classified according to the following criteria.
The flight rules under which flight is permitted. The separation provided.
Requirements for an air traffic control clearance to be issued to aircraft using the airspace.
Requirements for two-way communications to be maintained between air traffic control and pilots.
Where visual flight rules are permitted, visual meteorological conditions criteria are applied.
Air traffic service airspaces are classified and designated as follows.
Class A. IFR flights only permitted. All flights are subject to air traffic control and are separated from each other.
Class B.
In the United Kingdom all Class B airspace is above flight level 245. IFR and VFR flights are permitted.
All flights are subject to air traffic control and are separated from each other.
Class C.
No airspace is designated Class C in the United Kingdom. IFR and VFR flights are permitted.
All IFR flights and VFR flights to be separated from IFR flights are subject to air traffic control.
VFR flights are separated from IFR flights.
VFR flights receive information about other VFR flights.
Class D.
IFR and VFR flights are permitted.
IFR flights are subject to air traffic control when IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights.
IFR flights receive traffic information concerning VFR flights.
VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights.
VFR flights require an ATC clearance to enter Class D airspace.
Class E.
IFR and VFR are permitted.
IFR flights are subject to air traffic control when separated from other IFR flights.
All flights receive traffic information as far as is practicable.
Class E is not used for control zones.
Class F.
Class F airspace is established in the United Kingdom in the form of advisory routes or ADRs.
These are similar to airways, having a width of 10 nautical miles.
IFR and VFR flights are permitted.
All participating IFR flights receive an air traffic control advisory service
and all flights receive flight information service if requested.
Class G.
Class G airspace is all the airspace not covered by Classes A to F and is known as the Open
FIR.
IFR and VFR flights are permitted and receive a flight information service if requested.
A flight plan is an air traffic service message compiled by or on behalf of the pilot in command to
a set format, the CA48.
It is then transmitted by the Air Traffic Control Authority to the organisation concerned with the conduct of the flight
and is the basis on which clearances are given.
A pilot who is intending to fly in the Open Flight Information Region does not need to file a flight
plan
but must still notify Air Traffic Control or other authority of his intentions.
This is known as booking out.
In the United Kingdom, a flight plan is normally filed on Form CA48
but a full flight plan or a partial flight plan may be filed either by telephone prior to take-off
or by radio telephony.
If a full flight plan is filed then the destination airfield will be advised of the flight.
If the pilot intends to enter controlled airspace then the flight plan must be submitted in sufficient time
for the appropriate clearance to be issued at least 10 minutes before the planned entry into controlled airspace.
It's normal to file a flight plan with the Air Traffic Service Unit at the aerodrome of departure at least
60 minutes before departure.
A flight plan is required when
The pilot is intending to fly in Class A, B, C and D airspace.
The pilot is intending to fly in Visual Meteorological Conditions, VMC, in any controlled airspace under Instrument Flight Rules, IFR.
The pilot is flying within controlled airspace in IMC or at night except for those flying Special Visual Flight Rules,
SVFR.
The pilot wishes to receive an Air Traffic Advisory Service, Class F airspace.
The flight will cross an International Flight Information Region boundary.
In the United Kingdom, the destination airfield is more than 40 kilometres from the point of departure
and the aircraft's maximum weight authorised exceeds 5,700 kilograms, Group C.
In the United Kingdom, it's advisable for the pilot to file a flight plan if his intended flight will cross
the sea more than 10 nautical miles from the coast
or cross a sparsely populated area where search and rescue operations might be difficult.
The Air Traffic Control Service is divided into three parts as follows.
The Aerodrome Control Service provides an Air Traffic Control Service for aerodrome traffic
except for those parts of flights controlled by an Approach Control Service
in order to prevent obstructions and collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area
and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic.
Aerodrome Control is normally provided within 10 nautical miles of the aerodrome.
The Approach Control Service provides an Air Traffic Control Service for controlled flights
associated with arrivals or departure in order to prevent collisions between aircraft
and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic.
Approach Control is provided within a Control Zone, a CTR, or within 25 nautical miles of a controlled aerodrome.
The Area Control Service provides an Air Traffic Control Service for controlled flights
except for those under an Approach Control Service or an Aerodrome Control Service
in order to prevent collisions between aircraft and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic
within a Control Area, a CTA, or in the Upper Flight Information Region, UIR.
To ensure safe vertical separation under IFR, a standard altimeter setting of 1013 millibars
is used by all aircraft when flying above the transition level.
In the United Kingdom, the policy is to continue to use the millibar for the unit of atmospheric pressure for
the time being,
although a European Commissioned Units of Measurements Directive specifies that pressure be in hectopascals.
The unit size for altimeter setting purposes is identical, that is, 1 hectopascal equals 1 millibar.
Height is defined as the vertical distance above a specified datum,
that datum being an aerodrome or particular runway threshold when QFE is set.
Elevation is defined as the vertical distance between the top of an object and sea level.
Altitude is defined as the vertical distance above mean sea level, indicated when QNH is set.
Flight level is defined as the level of constant atmospheric pressure separated from other similar levels by a notified interval,
expressed in hundreds of feet, which would be indicated when the altimeter is set at the standard pressure setting, 1013
millibars.
Transition altitude is defined as the altitude at or below which vertical distances are expressed as altitude, QNH.
It's normally 3,000 feet within the United Kingdom, except in certain specified areas.
Transition level is defined as the lowest usable flight level above the transition altitude.
This doesn't have a fixed value, but will vary dependent on the transition altitude and the value of the QNH.
Transition layer is defined as the airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level,
always less than 500 feet in the United Kingdom.
Within controlled airspace, either QNH or QFE may be used for take-off,
but if the aircraft has two or more altimeters, one altimeter must be set to QNH.
During climb two, and while at transition altitude, vertical position is given as altitude, based on airfield QNH.
Once above transition altitude, vertical position is expressed as a flight level, 1013 millibars set.
At and above transition altitude and en route, the aircraft should be flown at flight levels,
with the regional pressure setting set on the second altimeter.
Within a control zone or a control area, the QNH of an airfield situated within the control zone or the
control area should be used.
Flights on airways at flight levels do not use the quadrantal height separation system,
but use the semicircular height separation system, that is, eastbound flights odd flight levels,
westbound flights even flight levels, for example, flight level 70, flight level 80, etc.
Outside controlled airspace, pilots may use any pressure setting.
However, if the flight is below an advisory route, regional pressure setting must be set.
If the flight is below either a control area or a terminal control area, then the QNH of an airfield
within that region must be set.
It's recommended that regional pressure setting be set to assist in assessing terrain clearance.
If the flight is to be conducted above transition altitude, under IFR, then the standard pressure setting must be used,
1013 millibars.
During takeoff, cruise or landing, aircraft generate wingtip vortices which give rise to a phenomenon known as wake turbulence.
This is effectively a mass of swirling air behind the aircraft which will gradually decay.
If this turbulence is encountered, it can lead to an aerodynamic upset and loss of control.
The strength of wake turbulence is directly related to aircraft weight.
Wake turbulence separation minima is based on grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to their maximum certificated takeoff
mass.
The three categories are Heavy or H which is all aircraft types of 136,000 kg or more,
Medium or M, aircraft types less than 136,000 kg but more than 7,000 kg,
and Light, L, aircraft types of 7,000 kg or less.
The UK CAA specifies a small category between medium and light.
The following non-radar wake turbulence separation minima is applied to landing aircraft.
A medium category aircraft behind a heavy category aircraft, 2 minutes separation.
A light category aircraft behind a heavy or medium category aircraft, 3 minutes separation.
A minimum of 2 minutes separation is applied between a light or medium category aircraft taking off behind a heavy
category aircraft,
or a light category aircraft behind a medium category aircraft when they are using
the same runway, parallel runways separated by less than 760 metres,
Parallel runways separated by 760 metres or more if the projected flight path of the second aircraft will cross the
projected flight path of the first at the same altitude or less than 1,000 feet below,
Crossing runways if the projected flight path of the second aircraft will cross the projected flight path of the first
at the same altitude or less than 1,000 feet below.
The pilot should be able to obtain meteorological information for his departure, and should
be able to get a forecast for his point of arrival, a terminal aerodrome forecast.
In addition, it's the pilot's responsibility to obtain weather information for the route
he intends to fly, to confirm that the weather will be suitable for his planned sortie, and
that the conditions are commensurate with his abilities and ratings.
Any flight undertaken must conform to either Visual Flight Rules, VFR, or Instrument Flight
Rules, IFR.
It's only possible to fly VFR in visual meteorological conditions.
Visual meteorological conditions, or VMC, are weather conditions at various levels within
each class of airspace in which Visual Flight Rules apply.
The weather conditions are expressed in terms of visibility, ceiling height, and aircraft
clearance from clouds along the path of flight equal to or better than a specified minima.
When these criteria do not exist, then Instrument Meteorological Conditions, IMC, prevail, and
the flight must comply with Instrument Flight Rules, IFR.
Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud and ceiling,
which are less than the minimums specified for visual meteorological conditions, are
reported as IMC.
There are several methods of obtaining a flight forecast. The pilot can obtain METARs, TAFs,
SIGMET, AIRMET, Form 214, which is the spot wind chart, and Form 215, which is the low
level significant weather chart.
In flight, the pilot can obtain weather from ATIS broadcasts and through the Volmet service.
To find out more about how to obtain meteorological forecasts, go to Disc 4.
A special Visual Flight Rules flight is a flight which is made at any time in a Class
A airspace control zone, for example the London control zone, or any other control zone, in
IMC or at night.
Air traffic control must give permission for the flight, and it is to be in accordance
with special air traffic control instructions instead of in accordance with IFR. The aircraft
must remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface.
A full flight plan is not required unless the pilot wishes the destination airfield
to be notified of the flight, but air traffic control will require brief details of the
aircraft call sign, type, and the pilot's intentions. Air traffic control will only
grant permission for a special Visual Flight Rules flight when the conditions permit.
A pilot who holds a PPL who is flying in accordance with a special Visual Flight Rules clearance
must have a minimum visibility of 10km or more, and must remain clear of cloud and in
sight of the surface. If the pilot holds an IMC rating, then the visibility may be reduced
to 3km. Special Visual Flight Rules routes are established with published visibility
minimum of less than 10km. These may be used by a pilot who holds a PPL.
Remember, any clearance offered to a PPL holder which is outside the privileges of his licence
must be declined.
The holder of a PPL may be required to make position reports when flying outside controlled
airspace, for example when receiving a Flight Information Service. A position report should
contain the following elements of information.
Aircraft Call Sign Position
Time at that position
Flight Level or Altitude
Next Position and Time Over
If you're outside the United Kingdom, ensuing position
An example of a position report is as follows.
London Control, Golf Bravo, Whisky Tango Charlie, Oxford at 28, 2,500ft, Daventry at 4,200ft,
Honolly next
Airprox is the codeword used in an Air Traffic Incident Report to designate air proximity.
An Air Traffic Incident Report should be submitted, normally to the Air Traffic Services Unit
concerned, for incidents specifically related to the provisions of Air Traffic Services
involving such occurrences as aircraft proximity or other serious difficulty resulting in hazard
to aircraft caused by, for example, paltry procedures, non-compliance with procedures
or failure of ground facilities.
Whilst en route, should the pilot encounter any conditions which are unusual, or might
adversely affect the safety or efficient conduct of any other flight, a special aircraft observation
should be passed to the Air Traffic Control Agency being used.
The occurrences to be reported are
severe turbulence or severe icing,
moderate turbulence, hail or cumulonimbus clouds,
any other meteorological conditions which, in the opinion of the pilot in command, might
affect the safe or efficient conduct of any other flight.
Once en route, flying in the open FIR under visual flight rules, the pilot is totally
and solely responsible for his safe separation from other aircraft, irrespective of the type
of air traffic service he is receiving. However, it would be extremely unwise to ignore a controller's
advice if operating under a radar advisory service.
When flying within controlled airspace, under an Air Traffic Control Service, and in accordance
with an ADC clearance, whether VFR or SVFR, it's the Air Traffic Control controller's
responsibility to maintain separation from other traffic.
In the United Kingdom, pilots flying IFR below FL245 are required to comply with the quadrantal
rule, except in airways, where for flight planning purposes the semicircular rule applies.
The quadrantal rule is illustrated here.
For VFR pilots cruising at altitudes above the transition altitude, use of the quadrantal
rule is advised and is good airmanship.
If an aircraft is operating in accordance with an Air Traffic Control clearance, where
two-way radio communication is required, and its receiver or transmitter fails while it's
flying in the traffic pattern at a controlled aerodrome, a watch shall be kept for instructions
issued by visual signals.
If a failure of communications occurs during a flight in visual meteorological conditions,
regardless of whether the flight is under VFR or IFR, the aircraft must continue to
fly in visual meteorological conditions, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, and report
its arrival by the most expeditious means to the appropriate Air Traffic Control Unit.
The overriding need for an Air Traffic Control Service is to enhance safety. All aspects
of the provision of an Air Traffic Control Service are underwritten by the need to maintain
and where necessary improve the quality of the service provided.
Close liaison is imperative between the Air Traffic Control Service and all airspace users
and aerodrome management.
The objectives of Air Traffic Services ATS are to prevent collisions between aircraft,
both airborne and on the manoeuvring area, and between aircraft and obstructions on the
manoeuvring area. Also, the Air Traffic Services will expedite and maintain an orderly flow
of air traffic, and provide advice and useful information to promote the safe and efficient
conduct of flights.
In the event of any unfortunate happening, the Air Traffic Services will notify the appropriate
organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist those organisations
as required.
There are three basic Air Traffic Services. They are the Air Traffic Control Service,
the Flight Information Service, and the Alerting Service.
To enable it to prevent collisions between aircraft, both airborne and on the manoeuvring
area, and between aircraft and obstructions on the manoeuvring area, and to expedite and
maintain an orderly flow of air traffic, the Air Traffic Control Service is divided into
three parts. They are the Area Control Service, the Approach Control Service, and the Aerodrome
Control Service.
The Area Control Service provides air traffic control for all controlled flights, except
for arrivals, departures, and aerodrome traffic. The service is provided either by an Area
Control Centre, or by the unit providing the Approach Control Service in a Control Zone
or Control Area of Limited Extent, which is designated primarily for the provision of
the Approach Control Service and where no Area Control Centre is established.
The Approach Control Service provides air traffic control for controlled flights for
arrival or departure at an aerodrome.
Approach Control is provided either by an Aerodrome Control Tower or Area Control Centre
when it is necessary or desirable to combine the functions of the Approach Control Service
or the Area Control Service, or by an Approach Control Office when it is necessary or desirable
to establish a separate unit.
Aerodrome Control provides an Air Traffic Control Service from the Aerodrome Control
Tower for aerodrome traffic in the vicinity of the aerodrome.
The Flight Information Service provides advice and useful information to promote the safe
and efficient conduct of flights.
The Alerting Service will notify the appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of
search and rescue aid, and assist those organisations as required. You'll learn more about the
approach control service at aerodrome.
Approach Control provides air traffic control to controlled flights departing from and arriving
at aerodromes.
Where IFR traffic is departing to join airways, the Approach Controller is the link between
the aerodrome departure procedures and the airways joining procedures, and vice versa
for arriving traffic.
It's usual nowadays for radar to be used in Approach Control, although procedural Approach
Control still exists.
Where an aerodrome is in a Control Zone, Approach Control is mandatory, and the Controller may
be known as the Zone Controller. The Approach Control room may be at another aerodrome if
there is more than one aerodrome in the Control Zone.
Where an aerodrome is outside of a Control Zone, Approach Control, if it is established,
is advisory. Where procedures are established for instrument approaches, the Approach Controller
may delegate radar vectoring and monitoring of self-positioning to an Approach Radar Controller,
usually known as Radar Director.
When the control of traffic is based on an air traffic control clearance, then that clearance
is to specify the direction of take-off and turn after take-off, the track to be made
good before proceeding on desired heading, the level to maintain before continuing climb
to the assigned cruising level, and the time, point and or rate at which any level change
will be made.
Departing aircraft may be expedited by suggesting a take-off direction which is not into the
wind. It's the responsibility of the pilot in command of an aircraft to decide between
making such a take-off or waiting for a normal take-off in a preferred direction.
When it's requested by the aircraft, and if it's prescribed by the appropriate Air Traffic
Service Authority, a departing aircraft may be cleared to climb, subject to maintaining
its own separation, and it remaining in visual meteorological conditions until a specified
time or to a specified location, if reports indicate that this is possible.
Information regarding significant changes in the meteorological conditions in the take-off
or climb-out area is to be transmitted to departing aircraft by the approach controller
without delay. Significant changes in this context include those relating to surface
wind direction or speed, visibility, runway visual range, or air temperature or turbine
engined aircraft, and the occurrence of thunderstorm or cumulonimbus, moderate or severe turbulence,
wind shear, hail, moderate or severe icing, severe squall line, freezing precipitation,
severe mountain waves, sandstorm, dust storm, blowing snow, tornado or water spout.
Arriving aircraft, aircraft being handed over to approach from area, airwaves, may be required
to report when leaving or passing a reporting point, or when starting a procedure turn or
or to provide other information required by the controller to expedite departing aircraft.
When requested by the aircraft, and if so prescribed by the appropriate Air Traffic
Service Authority, an arriving aircraft may be cleared to descend, subject to maintaining
its own separation, and it remaining in visual meteorological conditions, if reports indicate
that this is possible.
There is no legal requirement for an aerodrome which is used for VFR flight only to have
an aerodrome controller. If, however, the aerodrome is to be used for commercial air
transport under IFR, it must be licensed, and part of the license requirement is for
aerodrome control to be provided by licensed air traffic controllers. Usually referred
to as either local or tower, or just by the name of the aerodrome on radio telephony,
the aerodrome controller is required to provide air traffic control services at controlled
aerodromes.
At non-controlled aerodromes, an Aerodrome Flight Information Service may be provided
by a Flight Information Service Officer, FISO.
Aerodrome Control Towers issue information and clearances to aircraft under their control
to achieve a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic on and in the vicinity
of an aerodrome, with the object of preventing collisions between aircraft airborne in the
circuit, and also between aircraft and vehicles and obstructions on the ground.
The tower is required to pass information by radio telephony to aircraft at various
stages of their flight, such as prior to taxiing, prior to take-off, and prior to entering the
traffic pattern.
When taxiing an aircraft, the pilot's vision can be limited. The aerodrome controller will
issue instructions and information to assist the pilot to determine the correct taxi route
and to avoid collisions with other aircraft or objects.
Aircraft may be permitted to taxi on the runway in use. Aircraft are not to be held closer
to the runway in use than a runway holding position. An aircraft may be permitted to
enter the runway and hold during operations after the landing aircraft has passed the
intended landing point.
Aircraft will be passed the following information in this order, the runway in use, the current
surface wind direction and speed, including significant variations, the QNH altimeter
setting and, either on a regular basis or if it's requested by the aircraft, the QFE
altimeter setting, the current visibility if it's less than 10 kilometres, or the current
runway visual range values for the runway in use, the correct time. If it's known that
the aircraft has already received any of this information, then it will be excluded from
the transmission.
Prior to take-off, aircraft will be passed information concerning any significant changes
in the surface wind direction and speed, the air temperature and the visibility or RVR
values and significant meteorological conditions in the take-off and climb-out area, except
if it's known that the information has already been received by the aircraft.
Prior to entering the traffic pattern, aircraft will be passed information concerning the
runway to be used, the mean surface wind direction and speed and significant variations therefrom
and the QNH altimeter setting and, either on a regular basis or if it's requested by
the aircraft, the QFE altimeter setting.
When operating under visual meteorological conditions, it's the responsibility of the
pilot-in-command of an aircraft to avoid collision with other aircraft. However, due to the restricted
space in and around manoeuvring areas, it's often essential that traffic information
be issued to aid the pilot-in-command of an aircraft to avoid collision. Essential local
traffic will be considered to consist of any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near
the manoeuvring area or traffic operating in the vicinity of the aerodrome, which may
constitute a hazard to the aircraft concerned.
Aerodrome control towers are also responsible for alerting the safety services in the event
of an incident or accident occurring on or in the vicinity of the aerodrome. They are
also responsible for immediately reporting any failure or irregularity of operation in
any apparatus, light or other device established at an aerodrome for the guidance of aerodrome
traffic and pilots-in-command of an aircraft. Aircraft which fail to report after having
been handed over to an aerodrome control tower or having once reported cease radio contact
and in either case failed to land five minutes after the expected landing time will be reported
to the Area Control Centre, ACC, or Flight Information Centre, FIC.
Any or all VFR operations on and in the vicinity of an aerodrome may be suspended whenever
safety requires such an action to be taken. The three authorities permitted to suspend
VFR operations are the Area Control Centre within whose control area the aerodrome is
located, the Aerodrome Controller on duty, and the appropriate Air Traffic Service Authority.
All such suspensions of Visual Flight Rules operations will be accomplished through or
notified to the Aerodrome Control Tower. The Aerodrome Control Tower will hold all departures
other than those which file an IFR flight plan. The Aerodrome Control Tower will also
recall all local flights operating under Visual Flight Rules or obtain approval for
special VFR operations whenever Visual Flight Rules operations are suspended.
The term Runway in Use is used to indicate the runway that is considered by an aerodrome
control service to be the most suitable for landing or take-off at the aerodrome at that
time. Normally an aircraft will land and take-off into wind unless safety, the runway
configuration, or air traffic conditions determine that a different direction is preferable.
In selecting the runway in use, however, the Aerodrome Control Service will take into consideration
other factors such as the aerodrome traffic circuits, the length of runways, and the approach
and landing aids available, besides surface wind speed and direction. If the runway in
use is not considered suitable for the operation involved, the pilot in command may request
permission to use another runway.
An aircraft landing, or in the final stages of an approach to land, will normally have
priority over an aircraft intending to depart. Departures will normally be cleared in the
order in which they report ready for take-off, except that deviations may be made from this
order of priority to facilitate the maximum of departures with the least average delay.
Pilots of aircraft operating under VFR in the traffic circuit are responsible for their
own separation and circuit discipline. Tower will impose control on circuit traffic to
provide separation between circuit traffic and departing and arriving traffic under
both visual flight rules and instrument flight rules. Control may be imposed if unauthorised
traffic enters a circuit until the hazard caused by the unauthorised traffic has been
resolved. Clearance to enter the traffic circuit will be issued to traffic intending to land
when it's not able, due to other traffic, to carry out a straight-in approach to land.
Pilots are to be aware at all times that aircraft in an emergency may enter the circuit without
authority or prior clearance.
The requirements of wake turbulence separation will determine the separation between aircraft
departing. Departing aircraft will not normally be permitted to commence take-off until the
preceding departing aircraft is airborne and has crossed the departure end of the runway
in use, or has started a turn, or until all preceding landing aircraft are clear of the
runway in use.
In the interest of expediting traffic, a clearance for immediate take-off may be issued to an
aircraft before it enters the runway, in which case the aircraft is to be taxied onto the
runway and the take-off run commenced in one continuous movement.
A departing aircraft may be ordered to line up and hold behind a landing aircraft before
that aircraft has cleared the landing runway. When safe to do so, a departing aircraft,
even if staying in the visual circuit, is to report airborne on the tower radio frequency.
A landing aircraft will not normally be permitted to cross the threshold of the landing runway
on its final approach until the preceding departing aircraft is airborne and has crossed
the departure end of the runway in use, or has started a turn, or until all preceding
landing aircraft are clear of the runway.
When aircraft are using the same runway, a landing aircraft may be permitted to touch
down before a preceding landing aircraft is clear of the runway. In this case air traffic
control will provide a warning by issuing the second aircraft with the instruction land
after and then give the first aircraft type, instead of the usual instruction cleared to
land. Responsibility for ensuring adequate separation rests with the pilot of the second
aircraft.
The tracks shown here reflect the critical positions in the visual circuit of an aerodrome
where a left-hand circuit is in force. Aircraft reports on downwind leg when a beam upwind
end of the landing runway.
Base leg report.
Final report. The clearance to land is issued here.
Long final report, between 8 and 4 miles, when the aircraft is on a straight-in approach.
The objective of the Air Traffic Advisory Service is to give more comprehensive information
on collision hazards than that given by a Flight Information Service. It may be provided
to aircraft conducting IFR flights in advisory airspace or on advisory routes, class F airspace.
Air Traffic Advisory Service should only be implemented where the air traffic services
available are inadequate for the provision of air traffic control and the limited advice
on collision hazards otherwise provided by Flight Information Service will not meet the
requirement.
Where Air Traffic Advisory Service is implemented, this would be considered normally as a temporary
measure until such time as it can be replaced by an Air Traffic Control Service.
Air Traffic Advisory Service does not afford the degree of safety and cannot assume the
responsibilities as Air Traffic Control Service in respect of the avoidance of collisions,
since information regarding the disposition of traffic in the area concerned available
to the unit providing Air Traffic Advisory Service may be incomplete.
To make this quite clear, Air Traffic Advisory Service does not deliver clearances, but only
advisory information, and it uses the word advise or suggest when a course of action
is proposed to an aircraft.
Every aircraft should be registered with a state which is participating in the Chicago
Convention. The Paris Convention of 1919 requires that all aircraft are registered with a participating
state and carry the appropriate registration mark. Each participating state has a nationality
mark, which is issued by the International Telecommunications Agency, followed by a state
registration mark. In the United Kingdom the nationality mark is G, and this is normally
followed by four letters.
When the last character of the nationality mark is the same type of character as the
registration mark, the nationality mark must be followed by a hyphen. Both the nationality
mark and the registration mark may consist of a combination of letters and numbers.
An example of a United Kingdom mark is shown here. A person with a PPL must not fly an
aircraft within the United Kingdom unless that aircraft is properly registered and displays
the appropriate registration markings. Any changes which are made to the particulars
given in the original application must be notified to the authority in writing.
A certificate of registration for the aircraft must be carried on all flights. Each aircraft
registered with an IKO member state is issued with a certificate of registration.
The aircraft must have an identification plate. It must be fixed to it in a prominent place
and it must also be made of suitable fireproof material inscribed with the national and registration
marks.
Airworthiness means that the aircraft has been designed, built and is equipped to carry
out its functions safely within its designated operating category.
The certificate of airworthiness is issued by the state where the aircraft is registered
and should specify the operating category. A person with a PPL would not normally fly
an aircraft unless it has a valid certificate of airworthiness issued by the state of registration.
Exceptionally an aircraft may be flown without a certificate of airworthiness, in which case
it should have either a permit to fly or an exemption. The certificate of airworthiness
is only valid if the aircraft is flown for the purposes indicated in the schedule for
its category.
The categories are
Transport Category – Passenger – Any Purpose
Transport Category – Cargo – Any Purpose Other Than Public Transport of Passengers
Aerial Work Category – Any Purpose Other Than Public Transport
Private Category – Any Purpose Other Than Public Transport or Aerial Work
Special Category – Any Purpose Other Than Public Transport, specified in the certificate
of airworthiness but not including the carriage of passengers unless expressly permitted.
Any state may issue a certificate of airworthiness, providing the aircraft is registered in that state.
Any certificate or licence issued by a contracting state may be accepted by another contracting state.
If an aircraft is used in either the transport category passengers or transport category cargo,
it must be maintained to a schedule approved by the authority of the state of registry.
There must also be a certificate of maintenance review and a technical log must be kept to
record flight times and defects.
Note, an aircraft hired for any purpose will by definition come into the transport category
and a PPL flying as an instructor is engaging in aerial work.
Each aircraft should be equipped to certain minimum standards as laid down by the authority.
These standards are laid down in Articles 14, 15 and 16, Schedules 4 and 5 of the Air Navigation Order.
These requirements are complex but it is the pilot's responsibility to ensure that his
aircraft meets the requirements for his particular flight.
A Joint Aviation Authority's Private Pilot's Licence is issued by the Civil Aviation Authority
of the JAA member state. It's valid for a maximum period of five years.
Either a Class 1 or a Class 2 Medical must be held to exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot's
Licence A.
Licence holders or student pilots must not exercise the privileges of their licenses,
related ratings or authorisations, at any time when they are aware of any decrease in
their medical fitness which might render them unable to safely exercise those privileges
and they must, without undue delay, seek the advice of the Civil Aviation Authority or
an Authorised Medical Examiner, an AME.
Unless otherwise specified in Joint Aviation Regulations Flight Crew Licensing, JAR FCL,
flight time to be credited for a license or rating must have been flown in the same category
of aircraft for which the rating is being sought.
All qualified pilots and those flying to obtain or renew a license must keep a personal flying
logbook. It must contain the following information. The date, the places where the holder embarked
and disembarked and the time spent in flight. The time is normally logged from the first
time the aircraft moves on the apron, under its own power, to the time it comes to rest
on the apron at the end of a sortie. This is known as the Chalk Time.
The type and registration mark of the aircraft. The capacity in which the holder acted during
the flight. Details of any special conditions including night flying, instrument flying
and in particular the training exercises specified in the PPL qualifying requirements.
Particulars of any test or examination taken whilst in flight.
Particulars of any flight simulator tests.
There's no minimum age for receiving dual instruction as a student pilot, but any instructional
time before the age of 14 years will not be counted towards license issue. Before flying
as pilot in command, acting in accordance with instructions given by a flying instructor,
a student must have reached the age of 16 years.
The minimum age for issue of a private pilot's license A in the United Kingdom is 17 years.
As with a qualified private pilot, the student must be in possession of either a Class 1
or Class 2 medical.
Advice must be sought from the Civil Aviation Authority or an Authorised Medical Examiner
if the holder becomes aware of a hospital or clinic admission for more than 12 hours,
a surgical or invasive procedure, the regular use of medication, the need for regular use
of correcting lenses.
If the holder becomes aware of any significant personal injury involving incapacity to act
as a member of a flight crew, any illness involving incapacity to act as a member of
a flight crew throughout a period of 21 days or more,
The pilot must inform the Civil Aviation Authority in writing of the injury or pregnancy and,
in the case of illness, as soon as the period of 21 days has elapsed.
The pilot's medical certificate must be deemed to be suspended upon the occurrence of such
injury or the elapse of such period of illness or the confirmation of pregnancy.
The holder of a JAA private pilot's license A may act as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot,
providing that he had a type or class rating pertinent to the aircraft to be flown, that
he holds a valid medical certificate, and he's not flying for remuneration.
The holder of a JAA private pilot's license A may carry passengers, but not for remunerations,
provided that within the preceding 90 days he has made three take-offs and three landings
as the sole manipulator of the controls.
Ratings for special purposes, for example night flying, IMC flying aerobatics, towing
and dropping of parachutes, may be established by the Civil Aviation Authority. The use of
a special rating in another member's State's airspace requires the prior agreement of the
State or States to be visited.
A flight time to be credited must have been flown on an aircraft of the same type or class
for which the license is being sought. An applicant will be credited in full with all
solo, student pilot-in-command and dual instruction time required for the license or rating. Half
of any co-pilot time accumulated may be counted.
An applicant for a private pilot's license must have completed a minimum of 25 hours
of dual instruction and at least 10 hours of supervised solo flying. This must include
at least 5 hours of solo cross-country flying.
The cross-country flying must contain at least one cross-country flight of at least 150 nautical
miles, 270 kilometres, during which a full-stop landing at two aerodromes, different from
the aerodrome of departure, must be made.
An applicant for the private pilot's license is required to pass theoretical knowledge
examinations in seven subjects. They are
Air Law and Operational Procedures
Human Performance and Limitations
Navigation and Radio Aids
Meteorology
Aircraft General and Principles of Flight
Flight Performance and Planning
Joint Airworthiness Regulations Flight Crew Licensing Communications
Private Pilot's License
A pass in these theoretical knowledge examinations will be awarded provided that they are passed
within a period of 12 months.
An applicant is required to pass the PPLA skill test with the Civil Aviation Authority
Authorised Examiner. Before attempting the skill test, all of the associated theoretical
knowledge examinations must have been passed, and all of the required flying training must
have been completed. The skill test must be taken within six months of completing the
flight instruction, and must itself be completed within six months of commencement.
The application for the grant of a Joint Aviation Regulations Flight Crew Licensing Private
Pilot's License A must be made within 24 months of completing the theoretical knowledge
examinations.
A holder of a UK PPLA is not required to hold either an IR or IMC rating. However,
he will then be limited to VFR flight in the Open FIR, a minimum flight visibility of 10
km if flying SVFR within regulated airspace, and he must remain within sight of the surface.
Without an instrument rating the holder may not act as pilot-in-command or co-pilot of
any aircraft flying in accordance with IFR within Category A, B or C airspace.
Without an instrument rating or an IMC rating the holder may not act as pilot-in-command
or co-pilot of any aircraft flying in accordance with IFR within Category D or E airspace.
The holder of a pilot licence is not to act in any capacity as a pilot of an aircraft
except as a pilot undergoing skill testing or receiving flight instruction unless he
or she has a valid and appropriate class or type rating. If any such rating is limited
to acting as a co-pilot only, or in accordance with any other limitation of the JAA, such
limitations are to be recorded on the rating.
JAA FCL-1 requires successful completion of a flying performance check and a written or
oral examination. The ongoing validity of a type or class rating is dependent upon regular
skill testing.
The holder of an IMC rating may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft that is flying SVFR within
a control zone provided the flight visibility is 3km or more, and may take off or land at
any place provided that the visibility below cloud is not less than 1800m.
The holder of an instrument rating may act as pilot-in-command or co-pilot of an aircraft
flying in accordance with IFR within Category A, B or C airspace.
The holder of a night rating may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft at night.
Class ratings are established for single pilot aircraft not requiring a type rating. These
are all single engine piston land aircraft, all single engine piston seaplanes, all touring
motor gliders, each manufacturer of single engine turboprop land aircraft, each manufacturer
of single engine turboprop seaplanes, all multi-engine piston land aircraft, all multi-engine
piston seaplanes.
A JAA member state may, at any time in accordance with national procedures, act on appeals,
limit privileges or suspend or revoke any licence, rating, authorisation, approval or
certificate it has issued in accordance with the requirements of the GRFCL. If it is established
that an applicant or licence holder has not met, or no longer meets, the requirements
of GRFCL or relevant national law of the state of licence issue. If this situation exists
where a licence has been issued by a non-JAA member state, and validated by a JAA member
state, then the member state is to report the situation to the state of licence issue
and the JAA, after which the licence holder may not pilot an aircraft registered in that
state or pilot any aircraft in that state's airspace. A licence issued will be valid for
a period of five years. Within this period the licence will be reissued by the authority.
After initial issue or renewal of a rating, when paragraph 12 in the licence is completed
and no further spaces remain, for any administrative reason, or at the discretion of the authority
when a rating is revalidated. The validity of a licence is determined by the validity
of the ratings contained therein and the medical certificate. An instrument rating is valid
for a period of 12 months. It may be renewed before the expiry of the period, but if the
candidate fails the test he or she may not fly in any capacity for which the rating is
required until successfully passing a subsequent test. A type rating is valid for one year
and remains valid subject to successful pilot proficiency checks. To revalidate, one check
is required to be completed within three months of the expiry date of the current rating.
A class rating for a single pilot, single engine class is valid for two years. All other
class ratings are valid for one year. A flying instructor rating entitles the holder to instruct
in flying aircraft in the type, group or class which is specified in that rating. An assistant
flying instructor rating entitles the holder to instruct in flying aircraft of the types
specified in the rating, provided that the instruction is given under the supervision
of a holder of a flying instructor's rating who is present during the take-off and landing
at the airfield where the instruction is given. An assistant flying instructor may not give
any direction or authorisation to a student for the first solo or first cross-country
flight. It's the pilot's responsibility to ensure
before flight that the aircraft is in a fit and serviceable state to undertake the proposed
flight and that it is suitably equipped. In addition, the pilot must also ensure that
he is suitably qualified and fit to carry out the planned flight.
Prior to departure, the pilot must be satisfied that the aircraft is loaded correctly and
is not outside the performance envelope published in the aircraft's weight and balance schedule.
In addition, the pilot must also confirm that with the given meteorological conditions,
wind velocity, temperature and pressure, and the constraints of the aerodrome, runway length,
surface conditions, etc., he can take off and land safely at his destination.
It's incumbent upon the pilot to ensure that the aircraft is equipped with sufficient instrumentation
to enable him to control the aircraft safely and conform to air traffic control requirements.
For details of radio equipment to be carried in United Kingdom registered aircraft, the
student should consult Article 15 and Schedule 5 of the Air Navigation Order.
In general, in the United Kingdom, a pilot must assume that an aircraft shall not fly
unless it is so equipped with radio and radio navigation equipment as to comply with the
law of the country in which the aircraft is registered, or the state of the operator,
and to ensure that communications can be made and the aircraft can be navigated in accordance
with the provisions of the Air Navigation Order.
The normal minimum fit for any aircraft flown by a PPL holder in the United Kingdom is radio
equipment capable of maintaining two-way communication with the appropriate aeronautical radio station.
When flying under instrument flight rules within controlled airspace, secondary surveillance
radar equipment must be carried, fitted with both modes Alpha and Charlie.
Before flight, it's the pilot's responsibility to check that the aircraft is properly registered,
is airworthy, and has been maintained correctly. To this end he must check that the aircraft
has the following documents.
Certificate of Registration
Certificate of Airworthiness
Certificate of Maintenance Review
Certificate of Maintenance Inspection of Release to Service
Technical Log
Noise Certificate, if applicable
Aircraft Radio Licence
Third Party Insurance Certificate
Each crew member must also have a valid licence with any appropriate ratings.
The commander of either a flying machine or glider is responsible for ensuring that one
pilot is at the controls at all times. If the aircraft is required to carry two pilots
then they must both be at the controls during take-off and landing, and any pilot who is
at the controls should be wearing a safety belt or safety harness. In addition, the pilot
in command must brief all passengers on the location and use of safety equipment, and
the actions to be taken in the event of an emergency. Everyone on board must obey all
lawful commands which the aircraft commander may give for the purpose of the safety of
the aircraft, persons, or property carried, or for the safety, efficiency, or regularity
of air navigation.
All aircraft in flight which are fitted with anti-collision lights shall display the lights
by day as well as by night. Practically this means that if an anti-collision light fails
it should be repaired when the aircraft lands, rather than landing for the purpose of fixing it.
All aircraft moving on the movement area of an aerodrome must display navigation lights
intended to indicate the relative path of the aircraft to an observer. No other lights
should be displayed if they are likely to be mistaken for these lights.
All aircraft on the movement area of an aerodrome are to display lights intended to attract
attention to the aircraft. Aeroplanes with engines running are to display lights to indicate
that fact. Red anti-collision lights will suffice for this purpose. It's usual to indicate
that an aeroplane is manned by operating the anti-collision light. This serves to warn
pedestrians that the engines may start up at any time.
A pilot is permitted to switch off or reduce the intensity of any flashing lights if they
are likely to adversely affect the satisfactory performance of his duties or, otherwise subject
an outside observer to harmful dazzle.
The pilot in command of any aircraft which is experiencing difficulties should communicate
these difficulties to the air traffic service in use as soon as practicable, initially on
the frequency in use, or on the emergency frequency 121.5 MHz. Any person observing
an aircraft in difficulties, whether from the air or from the ground should pass the
information either to the nearest air traffic control unit or to the local police. In this
sort of situation there are three distinct phases.
During the uncertainty phase the Rescue Coordination Centre will cooperate with the Air Traffic
Service Unit and any other appropriate agency or service in order that incoming reports
may be speedily evaluated. When the alert phase starts the Rescue Coordination Centre
will immediately alert the appropriate search and rescue services and rescue units and initiate
any necessary action. When an aircraft is known to be or is believed to be in distress
or when a distress phase exists the Rescue Coordination Centre will first initiate action
by appropriate search and rescue service units and rescue units in accordance with the detailed
panoramaction. The Rescue Coordination Centre will then ascertain the position of the aircraft,
estimate the degree of uncertainty of this position, and on the basis of this information
and the circumstances determine the extent of the area to be searched.
Survivors should attempt to draw attention to their position in order to assist the search
and rescue services. Any or all of the following methods may be used.
Fire distress flares or cartridges. Use some object with a flat bright surface as a heliograph.
Flash a light. Fly anything in the form of a flag and if possible make the international
distress signal by flying a ball or something resembling a ball above or below it.
Blow whistles. Deploy a fluorescent marker if available in the sea.
Lay out ground signals forming the symbols as large as possible, at least 8 feet or 2.5 metres long
with materials which contrast with the background. With the exception of the signals showing the direction
in which the survivors are proceeding the signals may be orientated in any direction.
The signals are shown here. Click on a button to be shown the appropriate signal.
A large V means require assistance.
A large X means require medical assistance.
A large N means no or negative.
A large Y means yes or affirmative.
A large arrow pointing in the appropriate direction means proceeding in this direction.
If an aircraft experiences difficulties in flight they can be divided broadly into two types
Distress or Urgency.
The definition of distress is the aircraft is in immediate and imminent danger and requires immediate assistance.
In a light aircraft the distress situation is most easily communicated to air traffic
by an RT call prefixed by Mayday Mayday Mayday.
The definition of urgency is the aircraft has an urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of persons on board
or within sight.
In a light aircraft the urgency situation is most easily communicated to air traffic by an RT call prefixed by
Panpan Panpan Panpan.
If the aircraft is fitted with a transponder then it may be used to indicate to a ground controller that
some difficulty is being experienced.
The following codes are used.
7700 Emergency
7600 Radio Failure
7500 Unlawful Interference or Hijack
An accident must be reported if between the time when anyone boards an aircraft with the intention of flight and
such time as all have left it
Anyone is killed or seriously injured while in or on the aircraft or by direct contact with any part of
the aircraft including any part which has become detached from it
or by direct exposure to jet blast except when the death or serious injury is from natural causes, is self
-inflicted or is inflicted by another person
or is suffered by a stowaway hiding outside the areas normally available for flight to the passengers or crew, or
The aircraft incurs damage or structural failure, other than engine failure or damage, when the damage is limited to the
engine, its cowling or accessories or damage limited to propellers, wingtips, antennae, tyres, brakes, fairings,
small dents or punctured holes to the aircraft's skin which adversely affect its structural strength, performance or flight characteristics and
which would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component, or
The aircraft is missing or is completely inaccessible
The regulations require that the commander of the aircraft at the time of a reportable accident, or if the commander
is incapacitated then the operator, gives notice to the chief inspector of the Air Accident Investigation Branch as soon as
possible
Reportable accidents in the United Kingdom must also be reported to the local police authority
The Civil Aviation Authority requires reports of incidents and defects, endangering the safety of aircraft flying for the purpose of
public transport without weight limit, or any aircraft powered by one or more turbine engines
Responsibility for making reports is placed on the operator or commander of such aircraft
Private pilot licence holders are not required to make such reports when hiring light aircraft registered in the public transport
category from flying training organisations and flying clubs, unless the aircraft are powered by one or more turbine engines
Noise abatement procedures are designed to minimise exposure of residential areas to aircraft noise, while ensuring safety of flight operations
There are usually communities close to aerodromes, and those communities are without exception noise sensitive
The objective of noise abatement procedures is to minimise the noise impacts on these communities
Any noise abatement procedures prescribed are subject to air traffic control and pilot discretion for reasons of safety
A noise abatement procedure will be developed by the operator for each aircraft type, with advice from the aircraft manufacturer
as needed, and agreed to by the state of the operator
Preferred runway direction for take-off and landing, appropriate to the operation, is nominated for noise abatement, to avoid noise
sensitive areas during the initial departure and the final approach phases of flight
Noise preferential routes are established to ensure that departing and arriving aircraft avoid overflying noise sensitive areas in the vicinity
of the aerodrome as far as is practicable
In establishing noise preferential routes, turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the aircraft has reached
and can maintain throughout the turn a height of not less than 500 feet, 150 metres above terrain and the
highest obstacles under the flight path
The bank angle for turns after take-off is limited to 15 degrees, except where adequate provision is made for
an acceleration phase permitting attainment of safe speeds for bank angles greater than 15 degrees, and no turns should be
required coincident with a reduction of power associated with a noise abatement procedure
Sufficient navigational guidance should be provided to permit aircraft to adhere to the designated route
For IFR flights, the routes are published in the form of SIDS and STARS
The state in which the aerodrome is located is responsible for ensuring that the aerodrome operators specify noise abatement objectives
The state of the operator is responsible for the approval of safe flight procedures developed by the aircraft operator
Noise abatement procedures should not be selected if noise benefits cannot be expected
The pilot in command has the authority to decide not to execute a procedure if conditions preclude the safe execution
of that procedure